🚀 go-pugleaf

[From Tim Carey (990503.0810)]


>i.kurtzer (990430.0000)
>
>
>> [From Rick Marken (990429.2010)]


>> Suppose I have two kids, A and B. A wants to sit in her room
>> and read Chaucer; B wants to go out and party. Without asking
>> A and B what they want (it wouldn't matter to me anyway) I force
>> both to sit in their rooms and read Chaucer. Am I coercing B and
>> not coercing A?


Is it at all possible that the term "coercion" could be used to refer to two
independent phenomena? "Coercion" in the first instance seems to be used to
refer to the situation where Person A intends to see Person B acting in a
particular way regardless of the intentions of Person B. "Coercion" however,
seems to also refer to the subjective experience of Person B where Person B
is being prevented from controlling some particular experience by person A.

Cheers,

Tim