🚀 go-pugleaf

A question to all C++ gurus out there:

Consider the following class definition:

class test
{
  private:
    int iPrivateInteger;

  public:
    virtual void f(void (*)(int&));
    virtual void f(void (*)(const int&)) const;

    virtual void g();
    virtual void h() const;
};

The purpose of the two definitions of f (note the placing of const) is to pass
the integer 'iPrivateInteger' to the function that is passed as an argument.

Obviously, when a const object of this class is used, one does not want the
internal integer to change, hence the definition of the prototype is different
as well. 

Say I have two functions:

void non_const_function(int&)
{
}

void const_function(const int&)
{
}

The first one matches the prototype of the first 'f', the second one of the
second 'f'. So, if I pass 'const_function' to an object of this class, the
second 'f' should be called, and conversely if I pass 'non_const_function' the
first 'f' should be called.

The question is: is that correct ? Intuitively I would say yes, but maybe
function-parameters do not take 'const' into account. (in effect :

void (*)(int&) is equivalent to void (*)(const int&)); another possibility is
that void(*)(const int&) can be implicitly converted to void (*)(int&).

Any opinions ?
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