Re: distinguishing between MS and IBM(PC) DOS

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Article #9087

#9087

From: Duncan Murdoch
Date: Mon, 22 Jan 1990 19:39

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In article <2638@jato.Jpl.Nasa.Gov> kaleb@mars.UUCP (Kaleb Keithley) writes:
>Which means that Olivetti licensed it's DOS from IBM rather than Microsoft,
>therefore, it's really PC-DOS instead of MS-DOS.

This raises the question:  is there any systematic difference between
MS-DOS and PC-DOS, other than who collected the royalties and what "ver"
prints?  

In other words, a question to the original poster:  why would
anyone want to distinguish between them?

Duncan Murdoch

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References: <5134@solo6.cs.vu.nl> <261@utrcu1.UUCP> <2638@jato.Jpl.Nasa.Gov>

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Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!utzoo!utgpu!watserv1!watmath!maytag!watstat!dmurdoch
From: dmurdoch@watstat.waterloo.edu (Duncan Murdoch)
Newsgroups: comp.sys.ibm.pc
Subject: Re: distinguishing between MS and IBM(PC) DOS
Message-ID: <1354@maytag.waterloo.edu>
Date: 22 Jan 90 19:39:13 GMT
References: <5134@solo6.cs.vu.nl> <261@utrcu1.UUCP> <2638@jato.Jpl.Nasa.Gov>
Sender: daemon@maytag.waterloo.edu
Reply-To: dmurdoch@watstat.waterloo.edu (Duncan Murdoch)
Organization: U. of Waterloo, Ontario
Lines: 12

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