Re: TeX and "Point" definition.

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Article #10995

#10995

From: Paul Neubauer
Date: Wed, 06 Jan 1993 17:02

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In article <1993Jan5.143540.15048@wraxall.inmos.co.uk>, 
 des@inmos.co.uk (David Shepherd) writes:
> 1sp *is* useful sometimes when you need something to be different from
> 0pt but not visibly so! i.e. giving a font a slant of 1sp makes
> LaTeX think that it is an italic font when using \em - this can
> sometimes be useful.

How so?  LaTeX doesn't really care what the actual font is that \em
uses.  `Giving a font a slant' requires running off a special version
of the font using Metafont.  If you don't want that font to actually
look different, why not just \let\em\relax ?

-- 
Paul Neubauer   00prneubauer@leo.bsuvc.bsu.edu  00prneubauer@bsuvax1.BITNET
                00prneubauer@bsu-ucs.UUCP       neubauer@bsu-cs.UUCP

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Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!news.nd.edu!bsu-cs!bsu-ucs.uucp!00prneubauer
From: 00prneubauer@leo.bsuvc.bsu.edu (Paul Neubauer)
Newsgroups: comp.text.tex,comp.text
Subject: Re: TeX and "Point" definition.
Message-ID: <1993Jan6.120246.13408@bsu-ucs>
Date: 6 Jan 93 17:02:46 GMT
References: <1993Jan5.042526.5853@hparc0.aus.hp.com> <1993Jan5.143540.15048@wraxall.inmos.co.uk>
Followup-To: comp.text.tex,comp.text
Organization: Ball State U.
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