🚀 go-pugleaf

In article <GREENEG.95Dec22140325@dali.cs.unc.edu>, greeneg@dali.cs.unc.edu� 
says...


>ALL of the cost of ALL payroll-deducted taxes is paid by the
>employEr.  ALL of it.  NONE of that money EVER goes to ANY employeE,
>so since he never had it in the first place, how can he have paid it?

What a bizarre concept!  Under your reasoning, when my employer deposits
my paycheck directly to my bank account, while my bank simultaneously deducts 
my mortgage payment, you would rationalize that I didn't pay my mortgage?



>But American wage-earners DON'T PAY income tax, social security,
>or ANY other payroll-deducted tax.  Their employers pay them, and they
>only have to pay them as a penalty for hiring people.

So when I pay social security on my outside income, or when I have to pay 
additional taxes due to under withholding from my primary employer (again, due 
to outside income), I'm suddenly transformed from one state of taxation to 
another?  



>Incidence of all taxes generally is a research topic in economics.
>Incidence, where the tax ultimately falls, is what ultimately counts,
>with respect to all taxes.  But most voters don't even understand
>the meaning of the term.  Most pariticipants in this discussion didn't
>either, when I re-introduced it.

I would be very careful about generalizations interpreting "disagreeing 
vehemently with" with "not understanding".