🚀 go-pugleaf

In article <1992Apr12.014433.29249@ennews.eas.asu.edu> makowsky@enuxha.eas.asu.edu (David Makowsky) writes:
>   In article <JIME.92Apr10223708@bullwinkle.atc.ll.mit.edu> jime@bullwinkle.atc.ll.mit.edu (Jim Eggert x6127 g41) writes:
>   # Yes, you are right.  [The amount of land purchased by pre-1948
>   # Zionists] should be between 7 and 8%, not 5%.  I erred.
>
>	   One admission out of several possibilities.  At least we have a
>   start.
>
>   # This modified figure is not misleading at all, however.  Any
>   # explanations you may wish to offer are merely spins on the simple
>   # truth that the Zionists didn't buy much of what is now Israel.
>
>	   This is also misleading if not outright false.  The bought a lot
>   of what could be bought.  You would then lead the net readership to
>   believe most was stolen.  It was not.  It went to the State of Israel
>   legitimately as state land.  The only reason the amount bought was so
>   low is that you use as your basis land that could not be bought.  If
>   you use a non misleading basis, the figure is much higher.

The land that went to the State of Israel as "state land" was for the
most part legally stolen.  This is how it worked:
1.  During the 1948 war, the Israeli forces had the deliberate policy
to expel the Palestinian populace from their villages and lands.  Even
Ben Gurion participated in this decision.
2.  After the populace fled, any farmers etc returning to their lands
were arrested or shot.
3.  Many Palestinian villages were dynamited or bulldozed.  Kinda
makes it hard to come home when there is no home to come home to.
4.  The vacant lands were declared "abandoned".  Any abandoned land
was expropriated and made state land.  It was made available for sale
to Jews only (an essentially racist law).  No attempt was made to
compensate the Palestinians.

Now that was perfectly legal in the sense that it followed Israeli
law.  Yet it was not right.
--
=Jim  jime%atc.ll.mit.edu (Jim Eggert)