Re: Grammar

Article View: misc.writing

Article #1087

#1087

From: Bob Jernigan
Date: Wed, 23 Dec 1992 13:38

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In article <fdyA026c2f6R01@JUTS.ccc.amdahl.com>, branwen@cerebus.ccc.amdahl.com (Karen Williams) writes:
|> In article <1992Dec22.224716.8245@netcom.com> horen@netcom.com (Jonathan B. Horen -- [408] 736-3923) writes:
|> 
|> >Split infinitives like "...effort to clearly express my ideas..." 
|> >notwithstanding :-)
|> 
|> One theory that I've heard proposed as to why English does not allow
|> split infinitives is that Latin does not allow split infinitives, and
|> many of our verbs are taken from Latin. 

Allow?  Are there grammar police lurking in the woodwork?  Grammar
is not jurisprudence.

bob

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<4200@eastman.UUCP> <Bzo3uw.FGo@nocusuhs.nnmc.navy.mil> <1992Dec22.212350.12902@stsci.edu> <1992Dec22.224716.8245@netcom.com> <fdyA026c2f6R01@JUTS.ccc.amdahl.com>

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Newsgroups: misc.writing
Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!darwin.sura.net!aplcen.apl.jhu.edu!visual1.jhuapl.edu!jern
From: jern@visual1.jhuapl.edu (Bob Jernigan)
Subject: Re: Grammar
Message-ID: <1992Dec23.133835.17118@aplcen.apl.jhu.edu>
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References: <4200@eastman.UUCP> <Bzo3uw.FGo@nocusuhs.nnmc.navy.mil> <1992Dec22.212350.12902@stsci.edu> <1992Dec22.224716.8245@netcom.com> <fdyA026c2f6R01@JUTS.ccc.amdahl.com>
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Date: Wed, 23 Dec 92 13:38:35 GMT
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