🚀 go-pugleaf

In ba.general Hal Burton <hal@burton.spam> wrote:
> On 2007-01-01 13:58:47 -0600, Merlin Dorfman <dorfman@green.rahul.net> said:

>> In ba.general Disgruntled Customer <nowhere@nowhow.com> wrote:
>> 
>>> Up until about 1948 when Ashkenazis were doing the same sort of things 
>>> to the British and Arabs that Palestinians do to Israel today, the 
>>> Sephardihim lived generally in peace with their neighbors, which as 
>>> Christian minorities lived in peace until Bush's new Crusade has 
>>> provoked violence against their own minorities.
>> 
>>      Cite for a significant Sephardic population in Israel before
>> the Arab/Muslim countries (Iraq, Iran, Syria, Egypt, Morocco)
>> began expelling their Jews after the formation of Israel?

> Merlin, Merlin, Merlin: you are becoming increasingly irrational. What 
> does "up until about 1948" in the previous post mean? 

     I think it means during the period of Irgun terrorism that led
to the British abandonment of the Palestine mandate and the UN's
creation of the State of Israel.  DC's claim is that the many
Sephardim who lived in Israel before the Ashkenazim began to arrive
got along with the local Arabs just fine.  Wrong on two accounts:
there were, to my knowledge, very few Sephardim in the area until
the Arab/Muslim countries in the Middle East began expelling them
after the formation of Israel; and the many Ashkenazim in the area
pre-1948 had many conflicts (as well as many peaceful interactions)
with the local Arabs.

> Reflect on how 
> your question becomes nonsensical in light of that qualifying clause. 

     Huh?

> Are you really finding this thread to be rewarding in any sense?

     If I confined my Usenet postings to those that were rewarding
in any sense, they would be damn near zero  :-)  But one of the
reasons for continuing to post is that otherwise, other readers
might get the impression that what DC (and some others) are saying
must be true, because nobody was disagreeing.