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Article #302

Re: deviation from Perfect Play

#302
From: Col. G. L. Sicherman
Date: Mon, 10 Mar 1986 17:35
16 lines
1263 bytes
> 	The question is:
> 
> 	IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE LOSER OF THE GAME TO ACTUALLY HAVE
> ACQUIRED LOWER SCORE? IN OTHER WORD, IS IT POSSIBLE FOR THE LOSER TO HAVE
> MADE FEWER DEVIATION FROM A PERFECT PLAY EVEN THOUGH HE LOST THE GAME??

It's not hard to construct an example.  More specifically, imagine a
game in which White often plays 2nd-best moves and Black often plays
3rd-best moves.  After 40 moves White has a winning advantage.  He
then plays a 2nd-best move in a position where all moves but the best
lose instantly.
-- 
Col. G. L. Sicherman
UU: ...{rocksvax|decvax}!sunybcs!colonel
CS: colonel@buffalo-cs
BI: csdsicher@sunyabva
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From: colonel@ellie.UUCP (Col. G. L. Sicherman)
Newsgroups: net.games.chess
Subject: Re: deviation from Perfect Play
Message-ID: <875@ellie.UUCP>
Date: Mon, 10-Mar-86 12:35:38 EST
Article-I.D.: ellie.875
Posted: Mon Mar 10 12:35:38 1986
Date-Received: Sat, 15-Mar-86 22:27:18 EST
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