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Article #2355

Re: Trig. inequality

#2355
From: J. Theodore Schuerzinger
Date: Sun, 22 Nov 1992 03:08
23 lines
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In article <1ekddfINNi96@uwm.edu>
radcliff@csd4.csd.uwm.edu (David G Radcliffe) writes:

> Show that (sin x)^(sin x) < (cos x)^(cos x) when 0 < x < pi/4.
> 
> --
> David Radcliffe                                
> radcliff@csd4.csd.uwm.edu  

Simple math.  Remember that (sin x)^2+(cos x)^2=1.  An identity from my
trig class back in high school.  Setting sin x equal to cos x, we get
(sin x)^2=1/2.  The answer to this is x=pi/4.  And since sin x
increases from 0 to 1 as x increases from 0 to pi/2, it's obvious that
cos x will be greater than sin x.  As neither is negative in this
range, (cos x)^2 will be greater than (sin x)^2 from 0<x<pi/4.  I
haven't taken any math since freshman year of college, but this was
easy!          


--Ted Schuerzinger
email: .zed@Dartmouth.EDU
"I should have realized it would be bad vodka when all the label said
was 'Russian Vodka'."
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From: J.Theodore.Schuerzinger@dartmouth.edu (J. Theodore Schuerzinger)
Newsgroups: rec.puzzles
Subject: Re: Trig. inequality
Message-ID: <1992Nov22.030801.4773@dartvax.dartmouth.edu>
Date: 22 Nov 92 03:08:01 GMT
References: <1ekddfINNi96@uwm.edu>
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