🚀 go-pugleaf

 
Although this question is hypothetical,it has serious implications for
an analogous situation:Suppose a city (or private franchiser) had 10
motels and each one paid an annual franchise fee of $10,000. In
addition each motel paid a $3 per person occupancy tax. Because the
city (or private franchiser)benefitted from higher occupancy (the
current average being 60%), it purposed that motels with less than 60%
occupancy would pay a higher franchise fee and those over 60% would pay
a lower fee: for example
     @ 70%=  $5,000 fee, @ 80%= no fee
     @ 50%= $15,000 fee, @ 40%= $ 20,000 fee
with the goal of trying to force motels to raise their occupancy rate
and generate higher revenue from the $ 3 per day occupant tax.
Is this a proper/legal method. Thank you   Rich