🚀 go-pugleaf

In article <5n6gft$on1$1@yakuza.fc.net>, John Fields
<starship@freeside.fc.net> writes
>Arny Kr�ger (arnyk@pop3.concentric.net) wrote:
>
>
>: Luc.vanHoye@ping.be wrote in article <33935466.1CC@ping.be>...
>: > I am trying to figger out if the impedance of an audio device has
>: > something to do with how loud its signal can go...
>
>: It does not.
>
>: Impedance and sensitivity are separate specifications.
>--------------------------------------------------------
>It does.
>
>Consider an amplifier with an 8 ohm output impedance feeding 8 volts into 
>a speaker with an 8 ohm impedance.  The speaker will be dissipating 8 
>watts of power and will generate a specific sound pressure level.
>
>Next, consider the same amplifier putting 8 volts into a 16 ohm load.
>Since P = E^2 / R, the power being pumped into the load is 8^2 / 16, or 4 
>watts, which will yield a lower sound pressure level.
>
>The assumption, of course, is that both speakers have the same efficiency 
>and are, in fact, identical except for their impedances.
 
And that is called 'begging the question'. Youhave just assumed what you
purport to set out to prove!
-- 
Regards, John Woodgate Tel. +44 (0)1268 747839
Fax +44 (0)1268 777124. OOO - Own Opinions Only
Alternative e-mail address: jmwa@thenet.co.uk
That means I get double spam with everything (;-(