🚀 go-pugleaf

A clear way of seeing that this calculation is faulty without even bothering
to complain about the impossibility of zero-resistance and zero-inductance
(it seems to me that the same error could be made as easily with a finite
R) is to ask why you multiply 1C by 1V.  When you start moving that coulomb,
there is not yet 1 volt of potential on the other side.  It ends up looking
like a triangle with base 1C and height 1V, whose area is of course 1/2.
By setting R=0, you are simply taking lim t-->0 of an integral, but that
doesn't give you the right to drop the integral and just multiply your
final values.