🚀 go-pugleaf

In article <kh-rv7a@lynx.unm.edu> lgorbet@carina.unm.edu (Larry P Gorbet ANTHROPOLOGY) writes:
<In article <29384@castle.ed.ac.uk> cam@castle.ed.ac.uk (Chris Malcolm) writes:
<>Oddly enough, very few people have problems with "he" and "him", quite a
<>few have problems with "me" and "I", and most people have problems with
<>"who" and "whom", yet the rules in each case are identical.
<
<This is true only if by "rules" you mean "'objective' descriptions of
<distribution" [...].  If, on the other hand, "rule" refers to the
<principle in the speaker's head which characterizes their language, then
<the troubles to which this thread has been devoted are prima facie evidence
<that the rules are *not* the same.

Which is where one begins to wonder why the rules are not the same.
Technically speaking, "he"/"him" and "I"/"me" only differ in person,
and there is no correlation between person and case in sight.
Why should the distribution of the individual case forms be different?

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