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Article #5156

Re: Hiya, sci.lang folks! was:Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford

#5156
From: benlizro
Date: Wed, 03 Mar 2010 22:41
36 lines
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On Mar 4, 11:06 am, "Brian M. Scott" <b.sc...@csuohio.edu> wrote:
> Panu wrote:
> > On Mar 3, 11:03 pm, Emungo <pyti...@tiscali.co.uk> wrote:
>
> [...]
>
> >> Maybe the reality is that I don't like drama very much.
>
> I know that I don't.
>
> >> But what I, like many anglophones, find fantastic about
> >> Shakespeare is his use of language. The regularity with
> >> which he uses what seem to me precisely the right words
> >> in precisely the right way in precisely the right
> >> context delights me.
> > This is what I find problematic. The fact is, that
> > Shakespeare's language is only partly intelligible to a
> > modern reader. Thus, in order to appreciate his "mot
> > juste" you basically depend on cribs and guidebooks and
> > commentaries, on a whole interpretative tradition -
>
> Perhaps you do; I find the great majority of his language
> entirely readable.  That was true when I first encountered
> him ~50 years ago, too.  Note that one can appreciate the
> language without necessarily catching all of the wordplay
> ('her C's, her U's, and her T's').

And "thus makes she her great P's", apparently attesting to the
existence of "pee" more than a century before its first occurrence
elsewhere.

When I noticed this a few years ago, I thought I'd (improbably)
discovered something that OED had missed. But they have the quote;
it's just tucked away in the etymology.

Ross Clark
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From: "benlizro@ihug.co.nz" <benlizro@ihug.co.nz>
Newsgroups: sci.lang,humanities.lit.authors.shakespeare
Subject: Re: Hiya, sci.lang folks! was:Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward 
 de Vere, Earl of Oxford
Date: Wed, 3 Mar 2010 14:41:14 -0800 (PST)
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