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Article #5163

Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford

#5163
From: johnk
Date: Thu, 04 Mar 2010 13:57
24 lines
2475 bytes
On Mar 4, 7:42 am, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On Mar 4, 3:50 am, Franz Gnaedinger <f...@bluemail.ch> wrote:
>
> > One more message, for Melanie Sands who bravely
> > defends her beloved William Shakespeare
>
> > Paris, in the play Romeo and Juliet, is introduced as
>
> >   valiant Paris
>
> > offering the alliteration
>
> >   valiant William
>
> In the English language, /v/ and /w/ are very different sounds. They
> do not alliterate together.

Where did he come up with Paris=William?


>
> Given the faulty premiss, all that derives from it is illegitimate.

This can be said of most of Franz's posts.
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From: johnk <jhobartkyle@gmail.com>
Newsgroups: sci.lang,humanities.lit.authors.shakespeare
Subject: Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford
Date: Thu, 4 Mar 2010 05:57:25 -0800 (PST)
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