🚀 go-pugleaf

On Fri, 08 May 1998 20:31:06 GMT, jaxx47@hotmail.com <jaxx47@hotmail.com> wrote:
>
>   As I understand this, the man history calls Jesus Christ is believed to
>have called himself by the Hebrew name "Yoshua", (Joshua) and when the story
>came to be written down in Greek, his Hebrew name Yoshua was translated and
>written down as "Iesous" ("Jesus") because Iesous(Jesus) is the Greek
>equivalent of the Hebrew name Joshua.
>
>   So the various names Jesus, Jason, and Joshua, as well as assorted
>variations in spelling are all essentially equivalent.

And I have a followon question: Why did the name "Jesus" come down to us in a
Romanized form, where Mary, Joseph, et. al. did not?

Cheers,
Garrett


-- 
Garrett P. Nievin       gnievin@gmu.edu       http://mason.gmu.edu/~gnievin
Any opinions stated here are probably not shared by anyone, least of all 
my employer...