Article View: sci.lang
Article #169Re: what has happened to "ascribe" ?
From: Joe Keane
Date: Tue, 28 Jul 1992 05:29
Date: Tue, 28 Jul 1992 05:29
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In article <RMUGELE.92Jul24082955@oasun1.oracle.com> rmugele@oracle.com (Robert Mugele) writes: >I tend to agree with this last comment. It seems to me that "there is" >and "there are" are moving toward an idomatic usage where they merge and >number is no longer significant. I see this as analagous to the Spanish >word "hay" which has the meanings "there is" and "there are". I have a sort of alternative theory that "there's" has become an acceptable contraction for "there are", most likely because "there're" is awkward to pronounce and easily confused with "their" or "they're". So i wonder how much people who use "there's" with plural objects would also use "there is" in the same place, or whether most of them would switch to "there are" if they're not using the contraction. In any case, it is an idiomatic format, and there's no reason to assume that the verb must agree in number with the object (or do you call it the subject). I'd have a hard time believing that "there" is a noun. -- Joe Keane, amateur linguist jgk@osc.com (uunet!amdcad!osc!jgk)
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Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!cs.utexas.edu!sdd.hp.com!mips!pacbell.com!pacbell!osc!jgk From: jgk@osc.COM (Joe Keane) Newsgroups: sci.lang Subject: Re: what has happened to "ascribe" ? Keywords: number, contraction Message-ID: <5689@osc.COM> Date: 28 Jul 92 05:29:47 GMT References: <92204.135724GRV101@psuvm.psu.edu> <1992Jul24.032652.15096@bnr.ca> <RMUGELE.92Jul24082955@oasun1.oracle.com> Reply-To: Joe Keane <jgk@osc.com> Organization: Versant Object Technology, Menlo Park, CA Lines: 21 Weather: sunny, high 79, low 55 Moon-Phase: waning crescent (4% of full)