Re: Do completed infinite totalities exist? Was: Lowneheim-Skolem theorem

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Article #560

#560

From: Torkel Franzen
Date: Fri, 20 Nov 1992 15:06

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In article <365@mtnmath.UUCP> paul@mtnmath.UUCP (Paul Budnik) writes:

>This is an important and useful concept. Does this mean that we must accept
>that the set of all reals as a completed infinite totality? I do not think so.

  You don't have to accept anything. You are free to develop whatever
mathematics you like and put it forward for general consideration. What
I am objecting to is only the idea that e.g. the distinction between
countable and uncountable sets can be seen to be a "relative" one in
the light of results in logic.

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Message-ID: <TORKEL.92Nov20160605@lludd.sics.se>

Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!mcsun!sunic!sics.se!torkel

References: <1992Nov17.124233.24312@oracorp.com> <TORKEL.92Nov19201017@lludd.sics.se> <365@mtnmath.UUCP>

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Newsgroups: sci.logic
Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!mcsun!sunic!sics.se!torkel
From: torkel@sics.se (Torkel Franzen)
Subject: Re: Do completed infinite totalities exist? Was: Lowneheim-Skolem theorem
In-Reply-To: paul@mtnmath.UUCP's message of 20 Nov 92 16:40:54 GMT
Message-ID: <TORKEL.92Nov20160605@lludd.sics.se>
Sender: news@sics.se
Organization: Swedish Institute of Computer Science, Kista
References: <1992Nov17.124233.24312@oracorp.com> <TORKEL.92Nov19201017@lludd.sics.se>
 <365@mtnmath.UUCP>
Date: Fri, 20 Nov 1992 15:06:05 GMT
Lines: 10

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