Thread View: sci.math.research
1 messages
1 total messages
Started by B. Strohmeier
Thu, 17 Dec 1992 10:03
Inequality question
Author: B. Strohmeier
Date: Thu, 17 Dec 1992 10:03
Date: Thu, 17 Dec 1992 10:03
21 lines
1468 bytes
1468 bytes
Can the following theorem be easily proofed?
Theorem:
Let
1. p_1\geq p_2\geq\ldots\geq p_n and q_1\geq q_2\geq\ldots\geq q_n
with 0\leq p_i\leq 1 and 0\leq q_i\leq 1 \forall 1\leq i\leq n
2. \sum_{i=1}^np_i=\sum_{i=1}^nq_i=1
(imagine p_i and q_i as probabilities in decreasing order)
3. \sum_{i=1}^kp_i\geq\sum_{i=1}^kq_i \forall 1\leq k\leq n
(the cumulated sum of p_i is always greater or equal than the
cumulated sum of q_i)
Then
\sum_{i=1}^np_i(1-q_i)^\alpha\leq\sum_{i=1}^nq_i(1-p_i)^\alpha
\forall real \alpha\geq 1
If this is true, it follows that a weaker expert can better predict a
stronger expert than vice versa.
Thanks in advance.
Bernhard Strohmeier
bstrohm@erasmus.hrz.uni-bielefeld.de
Thread Navigation
This is a paginated view of messages in the thread with full content displayed inline.
Messages are displayed in chronological order, with the original post highlighted in green.
Use pagination controls to navigate through all messages in large threads.
Back to All Threads