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Article View: sci.physics.relativity
Article #7269

Re: Why does light bend under gravity?

#7269
From: kenseto
Date: Tue, 25 Mar 2008 13:20
188 lines
9423 bytes
On Mar 24, 3:36 pm, PD <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Mar 24, 3:28 pm, kenseto <kens...@erinet.com> wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
> > On Mar 24, 12:12 pm, PD <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > On Mar 24, 11:19 am, kenseto <kens...@erinet.com> wrote:
>
> > > > On Mar 24, 9:50 am, PD <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > On Mar 24, 9:44 am, "kens...@erinet.com" <kens...@erinet.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > > On Mar 20, 10:50 am, PD <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > > > On Mar 20, 9:21 am, "Androcles" <Headmas...@Hogwarts.physics> wrote:
>
> > > > > > > > "PD" <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote in message
>
> > > > > > > >news:4c53fc2e-bcfd-425d-a7ed-afb8933257d2@e60g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...
> > > > > > > > On Mar 20, 3:02 am, Pentcho Valev <pva...@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> > > > > > > > > On Mar 18, 7:29 pm, Tom Roberts <tjroberts...@sbcglobal.net> wrote in
> > > > > > > > > sci.physics.relativity:
>
> > > > > > > > > > John C. Polasek wrote:
> > > > > > > > > > > On Sun, 16 Mar 2008 17:14:22 GMT,TomRoberts
> > > > > > > > > > > <tjroberts...@sbcglobal.net> wrote:
> > > > > > > > > > >> [Ignore Valev when he brings up Pound-Rebka and similar
> > > > > > > > > > >> experiments -- they do not measure speed.]
> > > > > > > > > > > I think, in a very important way, the experiment did effectively
> > > > > > > > > > > measure light speed, even though the authors thought frequency was
> > > > > > > > > > > reduced on the way up ("On the Weight of Photons" iirc).
> > > > > > > > > > > The Mossbauer filter on a speaker cone was oscillated at a minute
> > > > > > > > > > > rate, and spectral re-centering was achieved by the Doppler effect. On
> > > > > > > > > > > the up-stroke, the velocity neutralized the speedup of light as it
> > > > > > > > > > > left the gravity well.
>
> > > > > > > > > > Think about it -- there is no time synchornization, and if the effect
> > > > > > > > > > were due to a change in speed there's no way for the apparatus to be
> > > > > > > > > > sensitive to it; that is, there's no "nominal distance" relative to
> > > > > > > > > > which a "speed change" could be measured. Their observations are
> > > > > > > > > > consistent with a change in frequency (measured via Doppler), and say
> > > > > > > > > > nothing at all about any change in speed. Whether or not the speed
> > > > > > > > > > changed in addition to the frequency cannot be answered by this
> > > > > > > > > > particular experiment.
>
> > > > > > > > > I would agree with you Roberts Roberts if at this place you did not
> > > > > > > > > always stick your head in the sand, expose other parts of your body
> > > > > > > > > and fail to explain clearly the two incompatible implications of Pound-
> > > > > > > > > Rebka result f'=f(1+V/c^2). Let me do this for you:
>
> > > > > > > > > The Pound-Rebka result f'=f(1+V/c^2) implies that:
>
> > > > > > > > > (1) the speed of light in a gravitational filed is VARIABLE as
> > > > > > > > > Einstein suggests in his 1920 "Relativity" and obeys Einstein's 1911
> > > > > > > > > equation c'=c(1+V/c^2), whereas the wavelength remains constant. The
> > > > > > > > > application of Einstein's equivalence principle converts c'=c(1+V/c^2)
> > > > > > > > > into c'=c+v, an equation given by Newton's emission theory of light,
> > > > > > > > > where v is the relative speed of the light source and the observer in
> > > > > > > > > the absence of a gravitational field. Einstein's 1905 light postulate
> > > > > > > > > (c'=c) is false.
>
> > > > > > > > > (2) the speed of light in a gravitational field is CONSTANT and obeys
> > > > > > > > > the equation c'=c, in contradiction to what Einstein claims in his
> > > > > > > > > 1920 "Relativity". The wavelength is variable and obeys the equation
> > > > > > > > > L'=L/(1+V/c^2). The application of Einstein's equivalence principle
> > > > > > > > > leads to the conclusion that the equation c'=c+v given by Newton's
> > > > > > > > > emission theory of light is wrong whereas Einstein's 1905 light
> > > > > > > > > postulate (c'=c) is correct.
>
> > > > > > > > > This is a minimum explanation Roberts Roberts - more could be said in
> > > > > > > > > favour of (1) and against (2).
>
> > > > > > > > | The above is incorrect in a number of ways.
> > > > > > > > | 1. The Pound-Rebka experiment in no way implies that the wavelength is
> > > > > > > > | constant. In fact, the opposite is true.
>
> > > > > > > > What does it imply, then, now that we know what it doesn't imply?
>
> > > > > > > It implies that the frequency and wavelength are shifted and the local
> > > > > > > speed of light remains c.
>
> > > > > > No..... it implies that frequency is shifted and wavelength remains
> > > > > > constant
>
> > > > > Why would it imply something that is counter to measurement?
> > > > > Measurement shows that the wavelength is clearly shifted, as well as
> > > > > the frequency.
>
> > > > The wavelength of a specific source such as the sodium is universal as
> > > > measured by all obserers.
>
> > > We've been through that. It is not universal.

>
> > Sure it is universal when everybody measures his sodium source to have
> > the same wavelength.

>
> We've already discussed that too. It's not universal if a bunch of
> observers look at the *same* source and see that the wavelengths are
> different for all observers.

yes it is universal....different observers will determine different
speeds of the incoming light from the same light source. This makes
light agrees with the normal physics that speed is of anything is
dependent on the motion of the source or the detector.

>
> What you call "universal" is really "what you'll measure only if you
> obey the strict rule that the only source you can look at is one that
> is at rest relative to you." That is like coming up with a universal
> rule for cats by making everyone look only at the cat in their own
> lap.
>
>
>
> > >The same sodium source,
> > > recognized as sodium by all observers, has *different* wavelengths for
> > > different observers.
>
> > No....all light sources in the observer's frame will have a defined
> > wavelength.
> > The incoming light becomes a new light source in the
> > observer's frame
>
> Already covered that, too Ken. You're repeating yourself. There's
> nothing in the measurement process that makes it a new source -- it is
> still the same source for everyone, and it is still recognized by
> everyone as a sodium.
>
> > and thus it is defined to have a new wavelength. The
> > new wavelength can be used to determine the origin of the incoming
> > light.

>
> You'll notice that you never use the new wavelength in anything.

Wrong I use the new wavelength to determine the source of the incoming
light as described by you and from that I find the universal
wavelength of that light.

Ken Seto
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From: kenseto <kenseto@erinet.com>
Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity,sci.physics,sci.physics.particle,fr.sci.physique,sci.astro
Subject: Re: Why does light bend under gravity?
Date: Tue, 25 Mar 2008 06:20:11 -0700 (PDT)
Organization: http://groups.google.com
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References: <L_mBj.16850$Ch6.2540@newssvr11.news.prodigy.net> 
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