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Article #12401Re: Does God need to prove He exists?
From: rbwinn
Date: Sun, 20 Jul 2008 15:44
Date: Sun, 20 Jul 2008 15:44
26 lines
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3811 bytes
On Jul 20, 6:18�am, The Loan Arranger <no...@nowhere.invalid> wrote:
> rbwinn wrote:
> > Why do you claim that homosexual practices are not a sin any more?
> > Maybe you should have spent more time studying the New Testament.
> > Robert B. Winn
>
> Where in Jesus' teaching was homosexuality's illegality upheld? If he
> set aside the Mosaic law, and didn't reaffirm homosexuality as unlawful,
> then it must by definition be permissible.
>
There was no question about it in Jewish society of that time. The
law of Moses gave the penalty of death for homosexual behavior.
However, the Roman government did not give Jews the right to impose
capital punishment, so the Jews had no way of enforcing the death
penalty in the Law of Moses. However, Jews who were found to be
homosexual were excluded from Jewish society.
Since Jesus Christ's ministry was entirely within the society of
Israelites, the subject of homosexuality never even came up. All
Israelites knew that homosexuality was a sin.
Since homosexuality was rampant in Roman society, once the gospel
was taken to the Gentiles, it became an issue that church authorities
had to address, consequently, we see Paul giving instruction to the
Romans, to the Corinthians, and to Timothy, who was a bishop,
concerning what the church needed to do with regard to homosexuality.
Robert B. Winn
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