🚀 go-pugleaf

On Sun, 20 Jul 2008 08:44:08 -0700 (PDT), rbwinn <rbwinn3@juno.com>
wrote in alt.atheism:

>On Jul 20, 6:18?am, The Loan Arranger <no...@nowhere.invalid> wrote:
>> rbwinn wrote:
>> > Why do you claim that homosexual practices are not a sin any more?
>> > Maybe you should have spent more time studying the New Testament.
>> > Robert B. Winn
>>
>> Where in Jesus' teaching was homosexuality's illegality upheld? If he
>> set aside the Mosaic law, and didn't reaffirm homosexuality as unlawful,
>> then it must by definition be permissible.
>>
>There was no question about it in Jewish society of that time.  The
>law of Moses gave the penalty of death for homosexual behavior.
>However, the Roman government did not give Jews the right to impose
>capital punishment, so the Jews had no way of enforcing the death
>penalty in the Law of Moses.  However, Jews who were found to be
>homosexual were excluded from Jewish society.

So you tell us.

>Since Jesus Christ's ministry was entirely within the society of
>Israelites,  the subject of homosexuality never even came up.  All
>Israelites knew that homosexuality was a sin.

So, you are just making claims you cannot back up.

>     Since homosexuality was rampant in Roman society, once the gospel
>was taken to the Gentiles, it became an issue that church authorities
>had to address, consequently, we see Paul giving instruction to the
>Romans, to the Corinthians, and to Timothy, who was a bishop,
>concerning what the church needed to do with regard to homosexuality.

I will take this as your admission that you had falsely claimed that
Jesus said anything about this.