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Article #7279Spin-statistics theorem? (Was Re: Advise needed)
From: Alison Chaiken
Date: Wed, 13 Jan 1993 05:16
Date: Wed, 13 Jan 1993 05:16
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Hmm, sounds like someone out there should be able to explain the spin-statistics theorem. That is: why are spin-(n + 1/2) particles fermions, and spin-n particles bosons? I have seen textbook demonstrations that this is the case according to what type of Lie group the particle transforms under, but I must admit I don't get it. In particular, is there an intuitive explanation as to why spin-1/2 particles can't have a zero S_z state? After all, zero is a possible geometrical projection of 1/2, just as it is a possible geometrical projection of 1. Sorry to dredge up "1920's murk." Guess I should have asked Vicki Weisskopf when I was at MIT. -- Alison Chaiken alison@wsrcc.com (510) 422-7129 [daytime] or chaiken@cmsgee.llnl.gov Look if you like, but you will have to leap.
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Newsgroups: sci.physics Path: arc1-ca.pugleaf.net!sparky!uunet!zaphod.mps.ohio-state.edu!saimiri.primate.wisc.edu!ames!pacbell.com!iggy.GW.Vitalink.COM!nocsun.NOC.Vitalink.COM!wsrcc!alison From: alison@wsrcc.com (Alison Chaiken) Subject: Spin-statistics theorem? (Was Re: Advise needed) Message-ID: <C0s1Bv.Lw@wsrcc.com> Organization: W S Rupprecht Computer Consulting, Fremont CA References: <1993Jan9.040519.20022@lynx.dac.northeastern.edu> <1993Jan11.213454.12534@galois.mit.edu> Date: Wed, 13 Jan 1993 05:16:42 GMT Lines: 17