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Article #131

Re: Pi day

#131
From: G.W. Owen
Date: Wed, 19 Mar 1997 00:00
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Miro Jurisic (meeroh@mit.edu) wrote:
: In article <5gndo3$5u7@flounder.trans.ge.com>, bauerle@erie.ge.com wrote:
: 
: > Anybody got a proof for that?  i^i = exp(-pi/2)?
: > 
: > Thanks,
: > 
: > Ron Bauerle
: 
: i = e^(i*pi/2)
: 
: i^i = (e^(i*pi/2))^i = e^((i*pi/2)*i) = e^(-pi/2)
: 
: meeroh
: 
Of course i^i can also take an infinite number of other solutions, in
a analogous way with the fact that 3^(1/2) can take 2 values.

Riemann surfaces and all that.
-- 
Gareth Owen <G.W.Owen@keele.ac.uk>
Looking up is as scary as looking down.
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From: mad14@cc.keele.ac.uk (G.W. Owen)
Subject: Re: Pi day
Date: 1997/03/19
Message-ID: <5gof1p$t3p@gerry.cc.keele.ac.uk>
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Distribution: uk
References: <5gk8lm$qmj@opus.vcn.bc.ca> <5gndo3$5u7@flounder.trans.ge.com> <meeroh-ya023380001803972059510001@news.mit.edu>
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