Re: Pi day

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#71

From: Jason Woolever
Date: Mon, 31 Mar 1997 00:00

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>                         so      i^i  =   (e^(i*pi/2))^i
>                                      =   e^(i*i*pi/2)
>                                      =   e^(-pi/2)

Not entirely true.  You did not proof uniqueness.  There are
infinately many solutions.

- Jason

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From: Jason Woolever <wooly@mit.edu>
Subject: Re: Pi day
Date: 1997/03/31
Message-ID: <333F4AD2.5D81@mit.edu>
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Organization: Massachvsetts Institvte of Technology
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