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Article #8

Re: Question about frequency modulation

#8
From: Tony Quinn
Date: Thu, 28 May 2009 18:41
31 lines
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In message <gvmlc6$qgb$3@usenet01.srv.cis.pitt.edu>, GregS 
<zekfrivo@zekfrivolous.com> writes
>In article 
><1a86fd28-bebe-4f09-8d0b-1a6685d01ce3@b34g2000pra.googlegroups.com>, 
>GreenXenon <glucegen1x@gmail.com> wrote:
>>Hi:
>>
>>In frequency modulation:
>>
>>Increasing the modulator=92s amplitude will increase the extent to which
>>the carrier frequency varies from baseband. In other words, a larger
>>modulation amplitude will cause the carrier to occupy a larger range
>>of frequencies than a smaller modulation amplitude
>>
>>Increasing the modulator=92s frequency will increase the rate in which
>>the carrier frequency changes. So why is it impossible to transmit a
>>higher-frequency modulator signal on a lower-frequency FM carrier
>>signal?
>
>If you got 100 mHz carrier a 1 Ghz modulator
>it will try to give byproducts which can't be had. A minus 1.1 Ghz is 
>impossible.
>
>Kind of like aliasing I think..

You mean folded sidebands, familiar to all old-school VT engineers.

-- 
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people have delusions we must apparently call them a religious group, and
respect their delusionary state.
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From: Tony Quinn <tony@tqvideo.co.uk>
Newsgroups: uk.tech.broadcast,alt.radio.broadcasting,aus.radio.broadcast,ba.broadcast
Subject: Re: Question about frequency modulation
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Date: Thu, 28 May 2009 19:41:17 +0100