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Article #1551

Re: Question for Gatt

#1551
From: gatt
Date: Fri, 28 Jul 2006 16:48
27 lines
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"Paul J. Berg" <pjberg@webtv.net> wrote in message 
news:1154028381.286815.203280@i42g2000cwa.googlegroups.com...

> What I was trying to get at is: When judging whether something it is an
> act of vandalism or an act of terrorism, do we make that judgement
> based on the intent of the perpetrator or the action that resulted?

I'd say intent, otherwise you wouldn't be able to prosecute a failed 
terrorist attempt as terrorism.  If your intent is to cause terror by 
killing people, that's terrorism -and- at least attempted murder.  If your 
intent is to get even, get rid of somebody, etc, it's not terrorism.  Does 
that make sense?

>or would the mental anguish of a victim be enough to raise the resulting 
>action to that of an act of terrorism?

For the purposes of this discussion, say, destroying a unique or rare 
airplane as a means of protest (as opposed to a replaceable piece of 
equipment.)   Like, say somebody's pissed at logging in Tillamook so they 
treaten to or do torch the blimp hangar and everything in it.  Guess it 
depends on the definition of "terror."  The act would probably be equal to 
terrorism, but I'd think calling it "terrorism" wouldn't be appropriate. 
Some other term, perhaps of equal significance, would be better.  Aggravated 
arson or something like that.

-c 
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