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Article #2999

Re: Gender and grammar

#2999
From: Kalen
Date: Fri, 05 Nov 1999 00:00
25 lines
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Harlan Messinger wrote:
> Because the original meaning of "gender" wasn't "sex"! It comes from the
> French "genre", meaning "kind", "type", or (English has borrowed the word)
> "genre".  It came into English with these meanings. It came to be used as a
> synonym for "sex", but also to describe classes of words belonging to a
> language.

Ok, that actually did clarify things for me a little. But why do
they use "male" and "female" to describe the genders of words?
"Male" and "female" imply sex, not just type, to me. If it has a
totally separate purpose, then there should be totally different
words for them and totally separate pronouns/articles for objects
with sex and without. That would make a lot more sense to me,
anyway. If there really is a purpose to classifying nouns (I can't
imagine what it is and it is obviously beneath those who know the
purpose to give me a simple explanation (I know a fair bit of french
and see no purpose in that language)) then there should just be
separate words which are in no way connected to sex. It's way too
confusing otherwise.

--
Kalen

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From: Kalen <paradox@intelligencia.com>
Subject: Re: Gender and grammar
Date: 1999/11/05
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