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Article #5130

Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford

#5130
From: Peter T. Daniels
Date: Sat, 06 Mar 2010 15:25
54 lines
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On Mar 6, 10:04 am, Franz Gnaedinger <f...@bluemail.ch> wrote:
> On Mar 6, 3:23 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
>
> > Oh, so it's back to the same old vocabulary problem. You just don't
> > know what "alliteration" means.
>
> 'Stabreim' in German, a rhyme at the begin,

Fine. They used enter into Stabreim in German. English poetry has not
worked like German poetry for more than 1000 years. And German poetry
stopped working that way (except for the occasional revival, as by
Wagner) long.ago as well. (BTW, does Wagner ever alliterate <v> /f/
and <w> /v/?

> in this case vael- and wil- that are even genetically
> related, as shown earlier, v- and w- physiologically
> close, as the sounds are produced by the air
> breathed out through a slit, in the case of the v
> formed by the lower lip and the upper front teeth,
> in the case of the w by both lips - physiology
> can tell, phonemes are at a loss, as often,
> phonemes being a poor notation of the rich play

The "poor notation" that's what is actually used in language.

> starring the Lip, the Upper Lip, the Tongue, the
> Throat, and others. Edward de Vere helped his
> uncle - the same who invented the English sonnet
> of the rhyming scheme a b a b c d c d e f e f g g
> - translate Ovid's Metamorphoses from Latin
> to English, so he would have considered words
> and close variants such as valere and valiant,
> and velle and German wollen and English will
> that is present in German Wilhelm and English
> William, and judging from A Midsummer Night's
> Dream, where Oberon is chided for having been
> to India I can even infer that he somehow got
> in contact with Sanskrit and so may have
> anticipated the concept of Indo-European -
> only that the concept of metamorphoses lacked
> time depth in order to go over into evolutionary
> theory. Will have to explain this at more length,
> but you can be sure that William Jones's address
> didn't come out of the blue, also the grounds for
> the concept of IE was prepared by someone
> who came earlier, as is very often the case.
> But now I am buzzy with another question:
> why was de Vere silenced? I have an idea and
> will try to formulate it over the weekend.

You've got to admit, Franz has a fertile imagination. Sci.langers have
been counseling him for years to go into fantasy or sf-writing. But he
insists on presenting his fantasies as accounts of actual human
behaviors and activities.
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From: "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@verizon.net>
Newsgroups: sci.lang,humanities.lit.authors.shakespeare
Subject: Re: Proof that 'Shakespeare' was Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford
Date: Sat, 6 Mar 2010 07:25:03 -0800 (PST)
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