🚀 go-pugleaf

<U53644@uicvm.uic.edu> writes:
>Please pardon me if this is a silly question (I'm a Math/Elec.Eng. grad, not
>physics), but can one tell that a wave function has collapsed at a certain
>distant point before light from that point would have arrived?

No.  Two events separated by a space-like interval may be correlated, but
observers at either point cannot confirm the correlation until enough time
passes to "see" the other event.  Prior to observing either event, there
is no way to observe whether the wave function has already collapsed in
such a way that it will force the outcome of that event.  The result you
get is a certain outcome if you assume the collapse already took place
and a possible outcome if you assume the collapse did not already take
place.  It is the same outcome in either case, so you can't distinguish
those.

>If not, then
>does the simultaneous collapse of that wave function everywhere transmit
>information at faster than light speeds?

No information is passed, and it does not matter which event you consider
to have occured first.

>If not, what's the paradox?

The fact that Paul Budnik keeps this debate going for years.   ;-)

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