🚀 go-pugleaf

I just read an article in New Scientist (28 March 1992 Issue) written by
Marcus Chown entitled "Time travel without paradoxes." The article discusses some
aspects of time travel in relativity and quantum mechanics. The quantum-mechanical
"model" of time travel has something to do with parallell universes and explains the
paradox of going-back-in-time-to-kill-your-own-grandfather as not being a paradox at all.
The argument in the article goes something like this: 
Since quantum mechanics assigns probabilities for every possible (?) path in some 
time-space manifold, there exists a parallell universe (actually several), in which
it is possible to kill your own grandfather without it having any impact on the universe
you originally came from (whichever that is, since originally all of them should have
equal probabillity.) Now, if this is correct (read: a probable explanation) then
there actually IS something "paradoxal" here. (Or I just get it all wrong, which is the
most probable answer...:-) )
My problem is that if these parallell universes develop equally, then they are also equal at 
the point in space-time when you, in your ORIGINAL universe, enter the time-machine and
start travelling back to kill your own grandfather. In other words; you get a paradox
in any of these parallell universes, because they are equal at all times. If this should
work, as I understand it, there would have to exist a parallell universe where the
killed-grandfather-scene was "available" with a complete new future all ready for use! 
And that is not all: If this is correct, then there would have to be some mechanism to
generate a new universe for EVERY possible action and path for EVERY possible 
configuration of particles and energy. How is the configuration of the "universe" wave
functions that keep these universes apart, and how is probabillity divided amongst them?

Please clearify this brain-twisting problem.

If anyone has any refs on good books on quantum-mechanics and time,  
I would like to hear about them.

M&M