Thread View: sci.stat.math
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Started by Jon Dodd
Sun, 20 Sep 1998 00:00
help, a simple problem
Author: Jon Dodd
Date: Sun, 20 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Sun, 20 Sep 1998 00:00
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Hi, Please could you help me with this simple problem. From a normal distribution with mean m and standard deviation sd, I pick a random sample A and then second B. If A>B then the value of A is assigned to group X, if B>A then value of A is assigned to group Y. What is the resulting mean and standard deviation of the two distributions X and Y? I am not mathamatically oriented so a step by step proof would be great. many thanks Jon
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Ben
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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so you can get it down for your assignment.... right? Jon Dodd <jvd@physiol.ox.ac.uk> wrote in article <36052C4E.A697E07@physiol.ox.ac.uk>... > Hi, > > Please could you help me with this simple problem. > > From a normal distribution with mean m and standard deviation sd, I > pick a random sample A and then second B. If A>B then the value of A is > assigned to group X, if B>A then value of A is assigned to group Y. What > is the resulting mean and standard deviation of the two distributions X > and Y? I am not mathamatically oriented so a step by step proof would be > great. > > many thanks > Jon > > >
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Jon Dodd
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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Ben wrote: > >so you can get it down for your assignment.... right? > > Dear Ben, No its not an assignment, as you can see I am a physiologist and not a mathematician and the problem is just the first part of a neuronal decision process that I am thinking about. I have no background in any of this stuff and no formal teaching in it, I am just trying to sort something out in my head. I thought that asking the experts would be a useful and enlightening way to learn but I guess not, all I have had back so far are sarcastic and derisive comments. Well I apologise for not giving you lot a difficult and challenging enough problem, unfortunatly no-one has seen fit to offer me an explanation of this obviously easy problem but there you go. Hey I'll trade you for physiology/psychology information if you like! -- ============================================== Jon Dodd Department of Physiology; University of Oxford Parks Road; Oxford; OX1 3PT tel 01865-282483; fax 01865-272469 http://waller.physiol.ox.ac.uk/~jvd ==============================================
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Harald Giese
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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Jon Dodd wrote: > ... > From a normal distribution with mean m and standard deviation sd, I > pick a random sample A and then second B. If A>B then the value of A is > assigned to group X, if B>A then value of A is assigned to group Y. What > is the resulting mean and standard deviation of the two distributions X > and Y? I am not mathamatically oriented so a step by step proof would be > great. > ... Hi Jon, For a normal distribution A and B are independent random variables. Therefore, the likelihood for P(A>B) = 0.5 (i.e. 50%) and P(B>A) = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5 (P(u) + P(v) = 1, if v is the complementary event of u - think of a coin: P(head) + P(tail) = 1). You are just dividing a set of N random numbers into two sets of N/2 elements by random! (However, if you had specified something like A > m + sd this would make a different case.) Of course both sets are random representations of the same distribution with the same mean and standard deviation - but slightly different sample means and sample standard deviations as those are only estimators of the "true" parameters of the distribution. For N -> Infinity: mean(x) = mean(y) = mean_of_normal_distribution. I think, you should read one or two basic books on statistics, there are even some focussing on medical/biological issues. Regards, Harald (BTW, I had the same thought as Ben.) -- Harald Giese Email: giese@dkrz.de Phone: +49 (0)40 4123 5796; Fax: +49 (0)40 5605724 Institut fuer Meereskunde der Universitaet Hamburg (Institute of Oceanography of the University of Hamburg) Troplowitzstrasse 7, D-22529 Hamburg
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Jon Dodd
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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Harald Giese wrote: > For a normal distribution A and B are independent random variables. > Therefore, the likelihood for P(A>B) = 0.5 (i.e. 50%) and > P(B>A) = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5 (P(u) + P(v) = 1, if v is the complementary event > of u - think of a coin: P(head) + P(tail) = 1). > You are just dividing a set of N random numbers into two sets of N/2 > elements by random! (However, if you had specified something like A > m > + sd this would make a different case.) Of course both sets are random > representations of the same distribution with the same mean and standard > deviation - but slightly different sample means and sample standard > deviations as those are only estimators of the "true" parameters of the > distribution. For N -> Infinity: mean(x) = mean(y) = > mean_of_normal_distribution. Dear Harald, Thankyou for your reply. I don't think you understood my problem correctly or perhaps I misinterpreted your reply. I have 1 normal distribution (in fact I have 2 identical normal distributions but I posed the problem this way to make it simpler). I take random sample A and then random sample B. if A>B then the value of A goes to group X. if A<B then value A (value A again not B) goes to Y. Thus it is intuitive that X will have a greater mean than Y. They will differ from the original by the same amounts and be mirror images of each other about the mean. I have done some more thinking about this and the distributions of X and Y obviously must sum to the original distribution. If you draw this you get 2 non normal distributions with differences from the mean of about 0.5 sd. My question again though is how do you go through a mathematical proof showing the exact values of the means and the common new sd? Is there an equation giving the shape of the new distributions? Is it just multiplying a cumulative gaussian (prob that A>B) by the original distribution - if so how do you do this? many thanks Jon
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Harald Giese
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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Jon Dodd wrote: > ... > Dear Harald, > > Thankyou for your reply. I don't think you understood my problem correctly or > perhaps I misinterpreted your reply. I have not read your original question carefully, so I my answer was useless, sorry! Now my second attempt: 1. the normal probability density function (normPDF) for A (and B) is normPDF[z] := 1/Sqrt[2 Pi sd^2] * Exp[(-1/2)* (z-m)^2/sd^2] 2. the probability for any A being greater then B (A and B from the same normPDF) is: Integrate[normPDF[z], with z running from -Infinity to B] This gives the cumulative probability density function (normCDF) for A > B: normCDF[z] := 1/2 * (1-Erf[(x-m)/(Sqrt[2]*sd)]) with Erf being the so-called "error function" (see any statistic book for details). Some values: normCDF[-Infinity] = 0 normCDF[0] = 0.5 normCDF[+Infinity] = 1 Essentially, normCDF rises from 0 to 1 within (m - 4*sd) and (m + 4*sd). 3. the conditional probability density function X(A|A>B) (PDF for A given A>B) is just the product: condPDF[z] := normPDF[z]*normCDF[z] ( that for A<B is simply normPDF[z]*(1-normCDF[z]) ) Now the problem: if you assume the mean of a density distribution to be the "value of maximum likelihood" i.e. the maximum of the function, then you have to differentiate condPDF[z] for z (no problem) and solve the result for its root: Derivative[condPDF[z] for z] = 0 . The latter makes the problem if you look for an analytical result, rather than a numerical. I tried it with Mathematica - an algebra software (www.wolfram.com) - but that failed for the analytical solution. Regards, Harald -- Harald Giese Email: giese@dkrz.de Phone: +49 (0)40 4123 5796; Fax: +49 (0)40 5605724 Institut fuer Meereskunde der Universitaet Hamburg (Institute of Oceanography of the University of Hamburg) Troplowitzstrasse 7, D-22529 Hamburg
Re: help, a simple problem
Author: Jos Jansen
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
Date: Mon, 21 Sep 1998 00:00
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Jon Dodd wrote in message <360661F6.4DDCADE1@physiol.ox.ac.uk>... .... >I have 1 normal distribution (in fact I have 2 identical normal distributions >but I posed the problem this way to make it simpler). I take random sample A >and then random sample B. if A>B then the value of A goes to group X. if A<B >then value A (value A again not B) goes to Y. Thus it is intuitive that X >will have a greater mean than Y. They will differ from the original by the >same amounts and be mirror images of each other about the mean. > >I have done some more thinking about this and the distributions of X and Y >obviously must sum to the original distribution. If you draw this you get 2 >non normal distributions with differences from the mean of about 0.5 sd. My >question again though is how do you go through a mathematical proof showing >the exact values of the means and the common new sd? Is there an equation >giving the shape of the new distributions? Is it just multiplying a >cumulative gaussian (prob that A>B) by the original distribution - if so how >do you do this? > The distributions of X and Y are the distribution of the largest and the smallest observation in a sample of 2 from a normal distribution respectively. Properties of these distributions may be found under the heading "order statistics" in statistical literature. Jos Jansen.
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